If that is true then why did Title XXX make a distinction between residing in the U.S. AND jurisdiction of the U.S.? If we take your hairbrain analysis seriously there would be no need because simply residing in the U.S. puts you under the jurisdiction of the U.S.!! Because there are exceptions, defined by law. Those are the children of diplomats, foreign military, etc. The cases that are cited in the quotes above by the CongressCritters debating the resolution. At the time, but not now, many of the Indian tribes fell into that category as well.
Because there are exceptions, defined by law. Those are the children of diplomats, foreign military, etc. The cases that are cited in the quotes above by the CongressCritters debating the resolution. At the time, but not now, many of the Indian tribes fell into that category as well.
OK, so do you think Congress was royally confused when when they talked about parents owing allegiance to the U.S.? Why was not Irish children declared U.S. citizens at birth, but had to wait till till their parents were naturalized in 1908? How come the the civils rights bill require allegiance to the United States for children born to be a citizen?