[monday]

“Peasants consisted 75% of the Russian population before 1917. That was the asset Bolshevicks used to industrialise the country. Before 1917 the Russian Empire imported almost all advanced tech goods like airplane engines, in 1930 and later the USSR did all by itself. This could be achieved only be sacrificing people’s lives what exactly was done.”

So starving millions to death in Ukraine and killing millions more in gulags somehow industrialized the USSR? If what you say is true, how is it possible that other countries managed to industrialize without killing millions of people?

[Freelance Warrior]

So starving millions to death ....

Exactly.

Near all the machinery had to be imported. Only grain was available to be sold for the cash necessary. That leaded to grain requisitions and, finally, to starvation. The starving population was allowed (not always) to move to cities seeking for industry jobs what constituted cheap labour force.

Ukraine

as well as other places: Southern Russia and Kazakhstan which were top producers of grain together with the Ukraine.

and killing millions more in gulags somehow industrialized the USSR?

Gulags were founded to do a job: build a canal, a factory or even to design a new fighter planes. (In the last case engineers were convicted and put to work).

If what you say is true, how is it possible that other countries managed to industrialize without killing millions of people?

Because none of them managed to complete it within 20 years.