Here's a quick Gedanken mind experiment to clear the picture: you own a mobile home. You pay a land-owner $1 per year to lease his land so that you have a place to put your mobile home.
He terminates your lease after 80 years.
Is that his mobile home now, or yours?
Did I formally give the mobile home to the land owner in return for the low rent, with an agreement that he could terminate with one year's notice?
From the Philadelphia City Council resolution cited at #117:
WHEREAS, In 1928 the City of Philadelphia gave the Philadelphia Council of the Boy Scouts (now known as the Cradle of Liberty Council of the Boy Scouts, and referred to here as the Boy Scouts) permission to build, at its own expense, a building located on City land located at 22nd and Spring Streets; andWHEREAS, As reflected in the grant of permission, set forth in an ordinance of Council approved December 14, 1928, the building was to become at once the property of the City; and
WHEREAS, The Boy Scouts, pursuant to that grant of permission, built a building at that location,