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To: pabianice
Are you saying that Company A is free to divest itself of its assets without compensating shareholders?

what you seem to be saying is that Company A sold its trade secrets to company B. So Company A should have cash as a result of the sale. The shareholders have the value of the trade secrets sold to company B, right? Am I missing something?

6 posted on 01/18/2008 12:36:44 PM PST by Publius Valerius
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To: Publius Valerius

Unless the cash from sale to company B was used to pay off creditors (not investors) of company A. Creditors have legal precedence over investors. The investor SHOULD receive some sort of accoutning at the end of the fiscal year, though.


8 posted on 01/18/2008 12:40:32 PM PST by Philistone (If someone tells you it's for the children, he believes that YOU are a child.)
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