Sounds to me like you’re splitting hairs. If government forbids the exercise of a right then government has effectively rejected that right... just as I stated.
Perhaps I am. I just wanted to emphasize that an unalienable right doesn't cease to exist just because a government doesn't recognize it as a right and denies it to the people it governs. An inherent human right may become moribund in practical terms due to the people's inability to exercise it in a dictatorial state, but it still exists nonetheless.