Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: yefragetuwrabrumuy
Bush just made a statement from Crawford that the world must recognize Georgia's sovereignty over Ossetia and Abkhanzia because it has been recognized for many years. The sovereignty of states over their constituent parts can not be breached. What hypocrisy after the world stripped Kosovo from Serbia with Bush's enthusiastic support.
37 posted on 08/16/2008 8:45:59 AM PDT by brydic1
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 33 | View Replies ]


To: brydic1

Very true. The roots of the Georgia crisis lay in Kosovo.


40 posted on 08/16/2008 8:49:13 AM PDT by Travis McGee (--- www.EnemiesForeignAndDomestic.com ---)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 37 | View Replies ]

To: brydic1

Take that argument one step further. Is Tibet now an integral part of China? Is Taiwan independent of China because it has not been an integral part of the mainland for many years?

In truth, both Ossetia and Abkhazia were intentionally put into Georgia by Stalin to divide and control them. The Ossetians have a claim for reunification, just as Germany did.

Abkhazia is far more complicated, as it was both a part of Georgia and an autonomous republic under Stalin. One of Stalin’s secret police chiefs, Beria, encouraged Georgians to move there. Later, the Armenians and their church encouraged Armenia emigration there.

So the largest minority is not Georgian, but Armenian.

The devil is in the details of autonomy, however. Since 1991, both areas have split off from Georgia. But all this does is make “de jure” what had been “de facto” for many years. The Georgians didn’t rule them before, and they don’t want the Georgians to rule them now.

I will also add that there are enclaves like this all over the region, with lots of the same and similar problems. Chunks of other countries that are occupied by large number of people from adjacent countries.

But unlike the situation in California, where there are just “a lot of Mexicans”, the divisions are far deeper. Had California been an independent place not under US federal law for many decades, or even worse, under Mexican law, even if not policed by the government of Mexico, we would find ourselves in a similar situation.

That is, if the US government hadn’t ruled California since WWII, the vast majority of the people who lived there were Mexicans, and they used Mexican law and spoke Spanish, what right would the US government to now say they want to rule California?


47 posted on 08/16/2008 10:50:08 AM PDT by yefragetuwrabrumuy
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 37 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson