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To: BGHater
The ruling means prosecutors cannot introduce the videotapes as evidence in their case against Johnson, who is charged with felony sexual assault for having intercourse with his wife without her consent at least three times in 2005.

Don't these cops have anything better to do?

IMHO, for a married couple, consent should be assumed in the absence of explicit refusal. Is the next prosecution going to be against a husband for having sex with his wife while drunk, on the grounds that she was too drunk to consent?

15 posted on 09/14/2008 12:56:03 PM PDT by PapaBear3625 ("In a time of universal deceit, telling the truth is a revolutionary act." -- George Orwell)
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To: PapaBear3625
IMHO, for a married couple, consent should be assumed in the absence of explicit refusal

A comatose woman can't consent.

Is the next prosecution going to be against a husband for having sex with his wife while drunk, on the grounds that she was too drunk to consent?

Why not? We men don't have an absolute right to sex with our wives - they still have to consent. Our wives are not just our property to do what we want with.

19 posted on 09/14/2008 1:01:11 PM PDT by jude24
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