“...Torah. In there you’ll no find no “pre-sanction” for polygamy.”
Alright, no pre-sanction. But before moving on, take a look at Exodus 21:10: “If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.”
Also read Deuteronomy 21:15 and 16: “15 If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firstborn is the son of the wife he does not love, 16 when he wills his property to his sons, he must not give the rights of the firstborn to the son of the wife he loves in preference to his actual firstborn, the son of the wife he does not love.”
Exodus and Deuteronomy are definitely parts of the Torah, and are thought to have been written by Moses himself. Although you won’t find any scipture where Moses openly condones the practice of polygamy, he clearly was attempting to regulate, not forbid it, so it appears that is was an accepted practice among the jews at that time.
OK, look at Exodus 21:2-8. It addresses slavery, does it not?
Since most additional partners in that day were concubines, the context was the ethical treatment of slaves and servant women. Besides, if you use Ex 21:10 as some kind of claim that the Torah sanctioned polygamy, then would you be consistent and try to also tell us that Ex. 21:2-8 sanctions slavery?
The same applies to Deut. 21:15-16. Biblegateway.com heading for Deut. 21:10-14 is "Marrying a Captive Woman." Therefore, Deut. 21 is the exact same context as Ex. 21 -- and the same points I made above apply here.
Exodus and Deuteronomy are definitely parts of the Torah, and are thought to have been written by Moses himself. Although you won’t find any scipture where Moses openly condones the practice of polygamy, he clearly was attempting to regulate, not forbid it, so it appears that is was an accepted practice among the jews at that time.
Then, you are also telling us that both slavery and polygamy were "accepted practices among the Jews at that time?" -- Yes?