Would somebody please explain to me how the FOCA could possibly be constitutional. The commerce clause has been used to justify just about every federal intervention in the rights of the individual states, but I don’t see how it could apply to state legislation on abortion. Maybe the possibility that someone might cross state lines to get an abortion could be used to justify it, but I really don’t get it. A Constitutional Ammendment maybe...
Would somebody please explain to me how the FOCA could possibly be constitutionalSimple. Abortion must be required to prevent those inconvenient babies from denying our immoral citizens their inalienable right to their pursuit of happiness in bed.
Make sense now? </sarc>