I have posed the question, to try and get people to look at the unintended consequences of simply saying we are going to extend all the rights and protections afforded any other child to in-vitro fetusus, from the moment of conception.
If you're declaring the use of any drug that causes the death of a fetus to be murder, and a woman obtains these drugs illegally and uses them, then she has committed murder. If a doctor has any reason to believe a child was harmed or killed by the actions of the parent he is legally obligated to report it to the authorities for investigation. Does that apply if he suspects the woman may have illegally used abortificant drugs?
Ignore the “in-vitro” in the last post. I had a synapse misfire.