Clearly, the Constitution was never intended to allow slaves to keep and bear arms, since individuals who were free to keep and bear arms would not be slaves.
Is there any logical problem with interpreting "the people" as referring to all free persons, bearing in mind that even today not all people are free? Obviously the government wouldn't like such an interpretation, but I can't think of anyone who may be legitimately disarmed who could not also be legitimately regarded as "not free".
I suppose not. But then why did not the FF, in their specific and infinite wisdom simply include the actual word "free"?
I find it important to remember that not all the FFs were for slavery and that slavery was a compromise that wasn't meant to stand the test of time.
I also did not post on this thread to debate this issue, but to give points of reference (Dred Scott and Fredrick Douglass) to the OP who can take note as s/he wishes.