Well, I have often read these charges, and I’m not sure if it’s true or not. There is certainly some evidence that it might be.
It seems likely that, if he did it, Roosevelt miscalculated how badly Japan could damage our fleet in the attack and in the early part of the war.
Why would he do it? 1. Power. For the next five years the government said “Don’t you know there’s a war on,” and pretty much treated people like pawns. 2. Economic recovery. There was a theory that a war would pull us out of the depression. 3. Uncle Joe Stalin. Roosevelt was VERY biased in favor of Stalin and Communism, and Stalin said he needed some help against Hitler. 4. The usual reasons: defend France and England, defeat Hitler, and so on.
It is generally agreed that Roosevelt did provoke Japan. The last straw was when he acted to cut off their supplies of oil, when Japan was trying to industrialize and modernize.
To say that Roosevelt could have done this doesn’t meant that it wasn’t necessarily the right thing. Defeating Hitler was good. Helping the Soviet Union was bad. So you can argue about that.
Woodrow Wilson also ran on a promise to keep out of the war, and then after being elected went right in. Roosevelt did the same thing.
Woodrow Wilson also ran on a promise to keep out of the war, and then after being elected went right in. Roosevelt did the same thing.
Yes, exactly the same thing, including The League of Nations. The agenda was socialism for the purpose of consolidating power into the hands of a global oligarchy. T'was ever thus, the only thing that has substantively changed are the technical means by which to exert government control over the individual.
You have in your hands an effective countermeasure.