“The fact that limited, finite man cannot grasp something that God has said”
hmmmmmm it’s sort of ironic to put it that way. Because some finite minds claim to be able to grasp it just fine.
Anyway,, so then it should be a simple matter to translate. Ezekiel used the word that widely meant the modern territory of “Russia” and “Turkey” in those days? That should be a simple matter of translation. Like calling France “Gaul” or some such,,, that basically your opinion??
Oh no, it's not my opinion. I get my information from people who spend their lives studying eschatology:
Now I'd be happy to hear exactly why these scholars are incorrect.