[Hugin]

You can make a very good case that the 1st amendment didn't restrict the states because it says “Congress shall make no law”, but the 2nd does, in that it states “the right of the people...shall not be infringed”, which is not limited only to Congress. By ratifying it as written, the states became bound by it also. Otherwise there is no reason they couldn't have used the same wording in both.

[OldDeckHand]

"You can make a very good case that the 1st amendment didn't restrict the states because it says “Congress shall make no law”"

Right, you could make that case, and people did for years, and in fact the Supreme Court held as such. But, the point that I was making to the person I was responding to, is that virtually all of the relevant Amendments in the the BoR weren't incorporated at one time or another. If you continue reading the thread, you'll see where I and a few others point out some specific Amendments and the corresponding case law.