Since the right to regulate marriage is not specifically delegated to the US Federal Government by the USC, yes, that is EXACTLY what I'm saying. The 10th Amendment could not be any clearer.
Just because Congress passes a law and asserts a right to define something, doesn't mean it's constitutional.
So even though Article I, Section 8 expressly provides Congress with the power to “establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization” and to “make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers”, it does not have the power to define what it means in the immigration law when it uses the term “spouse”?