The oddity is the reference to “before Judaism.” 3000-3500 years ago is a long time, and I know of nothing prior to Judaism or classical Greek civilization that is identifiably Western in any way.
What is identifiably “western” about Egypt, Sumeria or the Indus civilization? What other pre-Judaic civilization or society is he referencing?
All cultures and ideas are built on previous ones, whether the art in prehistoric cave, the invention of fire, the formation of clans and kinship, the wheel, the use of steel. These had no identifiable Western attributes or led toward the Western canon of thought or the development of a “more identifiable Western idea”? Hammurabi’s code of law had profound effect on Western Thought.
Are you saying there were no Greeks or Romans in Egypt, Sumeria or the Indus valley or that they were isolated from all Western areas so their ideas and cultures had no effect on Western Thought?
This infusion of cultures is well-established throughout the historical record of art throughout the ages—even in prehistoric art. To say something is not “Western” because it is primitive, is saying that there was never an origin of Western Civilization and it just appeared fully-formed one day.