“and slavery had NOTHING to do with the ideological foundation of GOVERNMENT of the Confederacy”
I have to disagree with you there since the Confederate Constitution contains the following “No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, or law denying or impairing the right of property in negro slaves shall be passed.”
This is no different from the US Constitution, except that in the US Constitution it is not explicit but implied. Why do you think the US had slaves in certain states during the entire Civil War? Even after the Emancipation Proclamation slavery continued in the North after it had been ordered ended in the South.
and slavery had NOTHING to do with the ideological foundation of GOVERNMENT of the Confederacy
I have to disagree with you there since the Confederate Constitution contains the following No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, or law denying or impairing the right of property in negro slaves shall be passed.
The fact that slavery played an economic and cultural role in the South did not mean that it was otherwise a foundational part of the political ideology of the Confederacy. If slavery were removed from the Confederacy, it’s political philosophy would not have been effected. The GOVERNMENT would not have changed — though the social and economic dynamics would have been quite different.