Haven't read Raich or Wickard.
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From Scalia's decision in Raich:
...the authority to enact laws necessary and proper for the regulation of interstate commerce is not limited to laws governing intrastate activities that substantially affect interstate commerce. Where necessary to make a regulation of interstate commerce effective, Congress may regulate even those intrastate activities that do not themselves substantially affect interstate commerce.
http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/03-1454.ZC.html
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1. Do you agree or disagree with Scalia?
2. Do you think he is being true to the original understanding of the Commerce Clause?
3. If your answer to #2 is "No", why do you think he wrote what he did?
I do have to answer No on #2 and I can’t imagine how he arrives at that conclusion. Is this the one in reference to the War on drugs, etc?