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To: Sub-Driver
What in the world are you babbling about, XXX-42?

14th Amendment, section 4:

Section 4. The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.

The most important part is the phrase "authorized by law". The debt ceiling is the authorization by law. No increase in debt ceiling = no authorization to incur debt. Those bonds would immediately be not covered by the "shall not be questioned". Thus every one will be questioned and subject to litigation. Who in the world would buy those junk bonds knowing that?

I have not seen a single response by libs claiming the 14th amendment means there is no real debt ceiling even try to respond to the "authorized by law" phrase.

8 posted on 07/19/2011 6:54:53 AM PDT by KarlInOhio (The Dems demanding shared sacrifice are like Aztec priests doing it while cutting out my heart.)
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To: KarlInOhio

“No increase in debt ceiling = no authorization to incur debt. “

Actually, that debt ceiling is a useless measure to appease the masses. It has no bearing on law or Congress whatsoever. No Congress may limit the debt of a future congress as no congress may dictate spending to a future congress.

That debt ceiling simply says that is the limit a President may spend regardless of congressional authorization to spend otherwise. In no way does it limit congress.

This is all for show to make this out of control government seem like it is taking the debt seriously so you will vote for them. The fact is, congress can simply approve a new budget regardless of the debt ceiling.


18 posted on 07/19/2011 7:02:49 AM PDT by CodeToad (Islam needs to be banned in the US and treated as a criminal enterprise.)
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To: KarlInOhio

no constitutional atty here - but the argument is that since the money was appropriated then THAT is the “authorized by law”.

Added is that there was no budget last year.

So can anyone clear this up? I’ve not seen a post that addresses both sides at all.

Does “appropriated” give authorization to spend even though no budget was passed? Does a budget not being passed matter?


20 posted on 07/19/2011 7:03:47 AM PDT by Principled
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To: KarlInOhio

Unfortunately, traitors like clinton and obama are quick to divert attention from this part of the 14th Amendment:

3. “No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.”

In plain english it means that traitors like clinton and obama are not fit to drive a garbage truck in Chicago.

Maybe obama would like to read section 4, which prohibits reparations to former slaves and their ancestors.


41 posted on 07/19/2011 7:57:51 AM PDT by wendell
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