[tacticalogic]

Where does the Constitution require the SCOTUS to rule based on "intent?" Answer: It doesn't. And anyway, your opinion means diddly. The SCOTUS gets the last word, and they've spoken. CSA is constitutional. Pass an amendment if you don't like it.

Pass an amendment if you don't like the original intent of the Commerce Clause. The People have the last word, not the USSC, and not you.

[Huck]

Intent is meaningless. It’s not the original intent of the commerce clause that is in question. Yeah, I guess you could pass an amendment that somehow addresses the 200 years of commerce clause jurisprudence, from McCulloch v Maryland to Gonzalez v Raich. It will never happen. Can’t imagine what it would look like.