Makes me wonder how we got drug prohibition without one?
Possibly so that there was nothing to repeal after the inevitable failure and no way to stop the 'war on drugs' which has brought us so many surveillance and reporting laws.
Who says politicians don't learn from their 'mistakes'...
We got federal drug prohibition without an amendment because federal drug prohibition really came into being in 1970-71, three decades after the Supreme Court had upheld the power of Congress to regulate pretty much anything under the Commerce Clause. Alcohol prohibition, by contrast, came before the post-New Deal Commerce Clause cases, so Congress needed to pass an amendment to prohibit alcohol. It’s unconstitutional, regardless of what the Supreme Court says, and it’s an abject failure.
“Makes me wonder how we got drug prohibition without one [a Constitutional amendment]?”
Because when the federosaurus grew to a certain point, getting Constitutional authority for its actions became unnecessary. Does a tumor have to get authorization for what it gobbles up?