"Previous investigations have indicated that the ratio of sex offenders against female children vs. offenders against male children is approximately 2:1, while the ratio of gynephiles to androphiles among the general population is approximately 20:1. The present study investigated whether the etiology of preferred partner sex among pedophiles is related to the etiology of preferred partner sex among males preferring adult partners. Using phallometric test sensitivities to calculate the proportion of true pedophiles among various groups of sex offenders against children, and taking into consideration previously reported mean numbers of victims per offender group, the ratio of heterosexual to homosexual pedophiles was calculated to be approximately 11:1. This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.
This concludes the myth that homosexuality and homosexual pedophilia are not synonymous and that these two "orientations" are mutually exclusive...which is BS. Since the APA removed homosexuality as a paraphilia in the DSM in 1973 no evidence to the otherwise can be permitted in the soft sciences or their whole homosexual advocacy would unravel.
Place marker and thanks for the info.