[Larry - Moe and Curly]

“That’s why the clause was written the way it was. Loyalty was considered and easily proven.”

But that only applied to those who fit under the grandfather clause, correct?

[philman_36]

But that only applied to those who fit under the grandfather clause, correct?
In my understanding, yes. Once those people passed away it no longer applied. No person except a natural born citizen, or a citizen of the United States, at the time of the adoption of this Constitution, shall be eligible to the office of President...

Those running for office themselves couldn't have been "natural born" citizens as their parents were not US citizens at their births.

[Tublecane]

“But that only applied to those who fit under the grandfather clause, correct?”

yes, but according to the logic of the argument your “only” is inapt. A previous poster was trying to argue that since we know the Framers were motivated by preventing people with questionable loyalty from being president they’d surely never allow eligibility for the sons of British subjects. Except we happen to know the sons of British subjects and men themselves born British subjects were eligible under the Grandfather Clause. Which, when you think about it, casts doubt on this whole question of intent.

For if supposed intent leads you to believe something that’s clearly false, e.g. that the Framers disallowed the sons of British subjects from being presidential eligibility, perhaps your wrong about other conclusions prompted from intent, e.g. that any but the children of two citizen parents can be natural born citizens.