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To: jonno

Exactly. When the slaves got the vote, they were forced to vote Democrat. They do so today out of habit and fear. That cycle has to be broken. Their families voted Democrat, so they vote Democrat. I think what is happening today is that they are learning that this admin lied to them and they don’t like it.


10 posted on 06/02/2012 8:52:35 AM PDT by RC2 (Buy American and support the Wounded Warrior Project whenever possible.)
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To: RC2

Umm, no. Slaves never got the right to vote. After the Civil War, *ex* slaves got the right to vote. And they voted as overwhelmingly Republican (at least until the New Deal) as blacks vote overwhelmingly Democrat today. Governments in Democrat-controlled states, especially (but not exclusively) in the South, spent the better part of the next century coming up with schemes to supress the black vote (such as “literacy” tests, poll taxes, etc.). None of those things exist anymore, so the Civil Rights Division of the DOJ and the professional race-grievance industry have to make up “violations” by states, counties and towns that, for example, adopt nonpartisan elections or require ID cards for voters.


24 posted on 06/02/2012 10:14:34 AM PDT by AuH2ORepublican (If a politician won't protect innocent babies, what makes you think that he'll protect your rights?)
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To: RC2

Uh, no. During Reconstruction, southern blacks unanimously voted Republican. Blacks didn’t begin voting Democrat until the 1930s, and the didn’t really shift totally away from the Republicans until the 1950s and 1960s.


25 posted on 06/02/2012 10:30:22 AM PDT by JerseyanExile
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