Seems like there’s good evidence that Roberts DID change his vote after the opinions were already written. The question is why he changed it at the last minute.
Rush says he thinks it’s because Roberts decided he wanted to have a legacy. I can’t believe that anybody would want to have a legacy of so angering the public that they create the world’s biggest backlash vote in history. If Roberts had wanted to leave a legacy he had plenty of time to think about that; why would he put out his peers in such a rude and angering way to create a legacy of anger with the public?
No, that doesn’t make sense to me.
Roberts wasn’t one bit happy about making the change, according to what was reported about his red eyes and unhappy demeanor. It sounds like he covered his legal behind with very, very thin excuses that were not well-supported at all - like he was not even TRYING to make the case for what was supposedly his own decision.
What happened to Ginsburg’s original dissent? Scalie referred to it, but what did Ginsburg end up writing for the court? Did she just get scrapped? Did Soros tell Roberts to take what Ginsburg wrote and just tack his name to the bottom of it? Did Roberts throw something together at the last minute so he just put platitudes in there, regurgitating what Verrilli fed him at the hearing? Did Roberts actually write that opinion? When?
I believe there’s a LOT more to this story than meets the eye.
Well, he got it....The Roberts Tax.