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To: paul544

No they are not. Your fellow Freepers are trying to make you understand polling

If you poll 40D-25R-35I you get one poll result. If you poll 35D-30R-35I you get a 10 point shift in the poll results. The Dem loses 5 points and the GOP picks up 5. How the sample is put together makes all the difference in the results of the polling.

Currently you have polls showing Obama winning and you have polls showing Romney winning. Both cannot be right. What your fellow Freepers are doing is telling you why the Pro Obama polls are wrong by crunching the data. YOU are basing your posts on nothing but YOUR opinion.

Actual party Registration in OH is 37R-36D this is just another massive Democrat oversampled poll


54 posted on 09/23/2012 7:38:46 PM PDT by MNJohnnie (Giving more money to DC to fix the Debt is like giving free drugs to addicts think it will cure them)
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To: MNJohnnie

Maybe someone can explain to me how these polls sample is determined.

If a pollster randomly calls 1,000 people and of that they get 500 who identify as Dems, 400 who indentify as GOP and 100 as indies, do they then report what the candidate preference was of those 1,000 and then list the breakdown as 50D, 40R and 10I?

Or do they go back and then say they think the electorate this fall will be 45 D, 40R and 15I and then take that percentage of people from the 1,000 thus the result reported may actually only reflect 900 of the people they called?


58 posted on 09/23/2012 7:46:25 PM PDT by SteveAustin
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