“and keep in mind that turnout favored Republicans by one in the most recent election (2010), while turnout favored Democrats by an average of just one point over the last eight years” — Can somebody help me translate this?
Does it say, “Repubs had a 1% point turnout over Dems in 2010, AND averaged over the last 8 years, Dems have averaged a 1% point turnover advantage.”? I THINK that’s what it says.
As for the table: It says, I think, that the dems are being oversampled NOT by the 1% point that the last 8 years would justify, but they are being oversampled by 10, 10, 10, 6, 6, and 7 points?
Am I correct in that reading?
Thanks
That’s what you are reading. Averaging the last 8 years, it has been a D+1 turnout - going back to 2000 election.