You may be right, but I’m not sure how that would work. If you have very wealthy suburb, and a rather poor one side by side, how would their school funding be equitable?
Their property taxes would be vastly different.
If they’re in the same county, perhaps the county levels it out. I would suspect there are poor counties right next to wealthy one’s too? How do the school districts get equitable breakdown then?
If you’ve got an answer to this, I would appreciate you mentioning it so I can understand.
This describes CA school funding and the methodology used.
http://www.ppic.org/content/pubs/report/r_310mwr.pdf