The criminal part of Sharia law will not now or ever have any standing in a US criminal court. But what business is it of the state to restrict two Muslim men entering into a business contract that references Sharia law. I say the state has no reason, and that contract would be enforced by the CIVIL COURTS as it should be, in the same way that Jewish Law and Catholic Law is used by CIVIL COURTS all the time.
Jewish and Catholic ecclesiastical law is subordinate to state and federal law. Sharia is not ecclesiastical only, it also encompasses criminal. This is what is being barred as not in comity.
Are you in favor of arranged marriages, after all what business is it of the state to restrict two Muslim men entering into a contract that references Sharia law?