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To: mgist

I read that when Obama signed the law, he did so with a “signing statement” that said he did not consider that the law had any effect on him and he did not intend to abide by it. Anybody know if this is true?

I’m not sure when this law was issued, and perhaps it was when the GOP was not in power in the House, but I’m surprised there wasn’t any outcry about it at the time. Essentially, he was just saying that the law was what he said it was, and he could suspend or ignore it at any time. I guess you have to give him credit for announcing it so openly, but it would have been nicer if US lawmakers had noticed and brought this to public attention at the time.


6 posted on 06/01/2014 6:29:00 AM PDT by livius
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To: livius

Forget the political Party, every President who has ever used signing statements is wrong. It is unconstitutional. It is like a line-item veto without the authority to do so.


22 posted on 06/01/2014 7:15:02 AM PDT by RIghtwardHo
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