To: SeekAndFind
I do not understand what the difficulty is in stating that the vernacular used by Jesus was Aramaic rather than Hebrew. This was the vernacular of the Jews at the time and does not make him any less Jewish. Just as if the Gospel had been situated in eastern Europe in the modern era and stating that he spoke Yiddish. It is still the language of the Jews.
To: Petrosius
Because it is a convenient myth, invented to erase Jewishness. Scholars now acknowledge that Aramaic was the language of the upper crust. Common folk, am ha-eretz spoke Hebrew. It is sort of like how Mel Gibson had him speaking Latin - it is about owning "Jesus." The Pope could not let some silly Jew own "Jesus" - so he made a jerk of himself.
20 posted on
06/01/2014 7:14:45 PM PDT by
Tzfat
To: Petrosius
Interesting that the Mishnah, compiled a century or two after Jesus, is in Hebrew, not Aramaic.
The Gemara, commentary on the Mishnah compiled a century or two after the Mishnah, is indeed in Aramaic.
22 posted on
06/01/2014 7:22:58 PM PDT by
jjotto
("Ya could look it up!")
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