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To: SeekAndFind
For what it's worth, I had a realization the other day. The 14th amendment specifically exempts Indians (Not Taxed) from birth citizenship.

This was changed when the Indian Citizenship act of 1924 was passed by Congress. The Point is, the 14th amendment explicitly allows Indians to be denied birth citizenship. If the Indian Citizenship act was repealed and replaced with an act allowing citizenship only for Indian tribes that reside within the US Borders, it would be legal.

Most Mexicans and Central/South American migrants are Indians.

Were it not for the Indian Citizenship act of 1924, they would already be excluded from birthright citizenship.

38 posted on 08/24/2015 8:57:00 AM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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To: DiogenesLamp

RE: The 14th amendment specifically exempts Indians (Not Taxed) from birth citizenship.

PRECISELY. As I said in another thread, it took an ACT OF CONGRESS nearly 60 years after the 14th amendment was passed to SPECIFICALLY state that Indians are American citizens.

Therefore, I conclude that the INTENT of the 14th was NARROWLY FOCUSED — towards SLAVES and their children.

Illegal immigrants were not even on the minds of the drafters of that amendment in the 1860’s.

So, we don;t need another constitutional amendment to deny children of illegals birthright citizenship. All we need is AN ACT OF CONGRESS, similar to what they did in 1924 to the Indians ( but this time DENYING citizenship, not giving it ).


40 posted on 08/24/2015 9:00:48 AM PDT by SeekAndFind (qu)
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To: DiogenesLamp
For what it's worth, I had a realization the other day. The 14th amendment specifically exempts Indians (Not Taxed) from birth citizenship.

No, the second clause exempts them from being counted for apportionment purposes, but in the citizenship clause they aren't specifically called out, just included in the not "subject to the jurisdiction" language.

90 posted on 08/24/2015 5:00:57 PM PDT by semimojo
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