someone help a complete novice with this but how does two alleged conversations in late December, almost two months after the election was over, equate to “collusion”?
C'me on. Don't try to be logical. It is soooo last century.
Actually, signature Martin Adamson on Conservativetreehouse.com wrote:
December 1, 2017 at 11:56 am
Calm down everyone, you are all missing something blindingly obvious.
If Trump was colluding with the Russians BEFORE the election, why would he need Flynn as a go-between AFTER the election?
Mueller has just entirely destroyed the whole reason for his investigation to exist.