Really? Since when ?!?
The clear distinction is the amount of punishment that can be given.
Once the State has ceased punishment, the individuals full citizenship must be restored.
Even before Northam and MacAllif there was a process that people who had gone to jail with felonies and after probation was successfully completed they could indeed file for reinstatement of voting and firearms possession. And the paperwork was routed through the governor and the governor would make a determination and a letter would be sent positively endorsing or negatively endorsing the request.
But the fact of the matter is this has always been on the table but McAuliffe wanted to do a blanket forgiveness of felony in order to garner additional eleventh hour votes and that was shot down by the House of Burgesses.
Since I remember.
If there is no lasting loss of Rights for a Felon, Voting and possession of Firearms, why is there such a thing as a Felony in the first place?
People know what the lasting effects on their lives will be before they commit the Felony. I’ve known that since I was a Child. Do the Crime and you do the time.
As I stated earlier, if there is no difference in punishment for committing a Felony versus committing a Misdemeanor, why is there a distinction between the two in our Justice System?