What happens if the gun owner rightfully refuses to allow entry into his property and refuses to surrender his firearms? Is the government justified in using force even though no crime has been committed? If no crime has been committed and no probable cause even exists, is it not the government that is the committing the crime?
I’ve always wondered about that. If you actually survive the experience of shooting cops doing this, how effective would your defense be if you claimed it was a 2A right?
I think there was a case in VA years ago where a cop entered a residence without a warrant and was killed and the guy got off in appeal because of that.
Not sure how it works when they are “following the law” but the 2A is designed for tyranny which by definition includes laws that suck.