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To: the_Watchman

Sure.

First I want to challenge you with a thought: simply ignoring the actual intent of the commerce clause to let Congress do something about States abusing their own police powers in order to set up legal obstacles to the Citizens of other States when they engage in commerce within a State other than their own, or to make commerce regular, in terms of regulatory authority which of the following is more far reaching?

To regulate commerce between the States or to regulate commerce or activity within a State but which is not commerce between the States?

Does the lesser power , the less far reaching into the Jurisdictions of the States, justify the greater effectively limitless power?

Our modern Court is so backwards that they claim a power to not only regulate things which are not commerce among the States but which merely affect commerce among the States even if they themselves are not commerce at all.

Which was the case in the instance I cited. A farmer was growing crops for his own use, and to feed IIRC his own animals, and the FDR administration told him he could not grow those crops without their permission because doing so affected commerce locally, snd therefore nationally.

He was not engaging in commerce at all by growing those crops, for he was neither buying or selling those crops.

FDR and the Court were wrong first about the intent of the clause itself, for it does not even exist to permit the federal to lord it over private persons or privately held entities when they choose to engage in commerce in multiple States.

And they were also wrong about the power they stole for the federal to regulate commerce within a State or to regulate any any all activity people may undertake under the pretext that these somehow affect commerce among the States.


19 posted on 05/01/2023 12:37:58 PM PDT by Rurudyne (Standup Philosopher)
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To: Rurudyne

Thank you! THAT was informative. (Your original post was just you blowing off personal steam.)


33 posted on 05/01/2023 1:23:13 PM PDT by the_Watchman
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To: Rurudyne

“He was not engaging in commerce at all by growing those crops, for he was neither buying or selling those crops.”

Totally get this argument however he was feeding those crops to the cows he was “growing and selling”, therefore making the crop growing part of the commerce?

I know, that’s a stretch....


72 posted on 05/02/2023 6:32:45 AM PDT by 1FreeAmerican
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