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To: thegagline
Maybe I missed it, but back in the 70's if a person was found innocent of a crime there was no follow up civil case to try and get some monetary compensation. Since civil cases don't require unanimity, it will always be easier to get a jury to get the technically innocent person to hand over some cash.

To me this seemed to be a form of double-jeopardy. If you can't get the person for the crime, then get a jury to retry the case as a civil violation.

Then there is also now a form of triple-jeopardy where they can get you for somehow violating someone's civil rights. So maybe you're technically innocent of killing someone, but you can be found guilty of violating their constitutional right to life.

No matter that we are all certain that OJ killed Nicole, and no matter how much we wish he had been executed or at least drained of all his money, this is the sort of thing that is now used regularly against anyone who defies the Deep State.

Step One: Try the person for a crime he didn't commit.
Step Two: Try the person for violating some obscure reading of the Constitution or Title IX
Step Three: Sue the person for vaguely defined damages

I believe that the hatred for OJ has boomeranged on us and is now aimed at us.

29 posted on 04/15/2024 11:41:15 AM PDT by who_would_fardels_bear (Kafka was an optimist.)
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To: who_would_fardels_bear

Huh? Wrongful death causes of action have always been available. It’s not a matter of unanimity of the jury; it’s the standard of proof. Criminal cases are beyond a Reasonable doubt and civil are preponderance of the evidence. And double jeopardy is defined in the Constitution: it’s being tried twice for the same crime. Civil actions are not criminal actions. I think OJ did it beyond a reasonable doubt, but it can’t be reasonably asserted that the killing could be shown by the preponderance of the evidence as as to support a civil judgment


35 posted on 04/15/2024 11:48:18 AM PDT by j.havenfarm (23 years on Free Republic, 12/10/23! More than 8,000 replies and still not shutting up!)
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To: who_would_fardels_bear
but back in the 70's if a person was found innocent of a crime there was no follow up civil case to try and get some monetary compensation.

This is not the case in the United States where the burden of proof in a civil case is less than the burden in a criminal case.

40 posted on 04/15/2024 12:07:07 PM PDT by thegagline (Sic semper tyrannis! Goldwater & Thomas Sowell in 2024)
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To: who_would_fardels_bear

I like your analysis.

Two things though:
-The lawyers are was is driving this.
-OJ is/was black.


55 posted on 04/15/2024 2:19:12 PM PDT by caver ( )
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To: who_would_fardels_bear

There were two trials. The DA trial snd the civil case. Happens as a matter of course.


61 posted on 04/15/2024 3:02:19 PM PDT by Clutch Martin ("The trouble ain't that there is too many fools, but that the lightning ain't distributed right." )
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