What I simply do NOT understand is how anyone can say that the voter's "intent" can be determined when the voter VOTED FOR TWO DIFFERENT PEOPLE on the ballot. Today, this is called an "overvote" by democrats in order to disguise the actual situation (it's actually a spoiled ballot). When a voter marks a vote for two different candidates, how can ANYONE know which one the voter "intended" to vote for? This is just an excuse for democrat-dominated voting boards to call all those votes for the democratic candidate which is what they did in Florida.
The same situation applies for the "undervote". This is a no-vote situation; the voter left all candidates blank. How can the voter's "intent" be determined other than that he may well have "intended" not to cast a vote in that particular race?
Am I missing something, here?
If I have my facts wrong in my Reply #20, I would really appreciate some FREEPER enlightenment on the subject. Am I defining "overvotes" and "undervotes" properly? If so, how can voter "intent" be devined without a crystal ball in either situation?
I know "overvotes" can also be produced by the classic vote-tampering technique known as the "wire" in which a sharp wire is inserted into a stack of ballots in the hole for the desired candidate.