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To: Nephi
Do you think it interesting that the Pope used the words, "deviant affections" to describe pedophiles, but never used the word for sodomite?

He didn't need to. The concept is included in the broader term that he did use. What are you implying?

64 posted on 09/06/2002 12:16:58 PM PDT by Steve0113
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To: Steve0113
The question is what is the Pope implying by using the words, "obvious deviations in their affections?" Afterall, he isn't Alan Greespan, he can come right out and say what he means. Frankly, the word "obvious" is the one that is most troubling, perhaps discrete is okay?
66 posted on 09/06/2002 1:49:23 PM PDT by Nephi
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