When it all boils down to the residue, whether you accept that the Northern Kingdom tribes made it to Europe or not, whether they changed their language or not (You can find the list of roots words in "Missing Links Discovered in Assyrian Tablets" by E Raymond Capt, pp 187-198), or whether their culture changed or not, the fact of the Hosea 1:10, 11 prophecy (also found in Genesis and Ezekiel) remains.
If God's Word can be taken there will be a major population right now of the descendents of the Northern Kingdom. Whom would they be, unless the Celtic related peoples?
Further, is there anything basically wrong with the European types peoples being the descendents, which would justify the frequently emotional reaction of people, out here at least, to that idea? You know what I mean. You can almost hear the echo in the outraged posts: Oh God! No! Not them! Anybody but them!
If you aren't going to try, there's not much to say.
But even so, we have centuries to work with in order to get them to Europe.
Not at all! They're well established in Central and Northern Europe well in advance of the Roman expansion. The given date of 610 for an emergence in Eastern europe is probably pushing it the wrong way.
The original wave of Celtic immigrants to the British Isles are called the q-Celts and spoke Goidelic. It is not known exactly when this immigration occurred but it may be placed somtime in the window of 2000 to 1200 BC.See what I mean about this not working?From The Celts.
Whereas the Urnfield people may justifiably be considered to have been proto-Celtic, their descendants in Central Europe, the people of the Hallstatt culture, were certainly fully Celtic. The Hallstatt culture and its successor, that of La Tène, together represent the iron-using prehistoric peoples of much of Europe.
Aren't you glad you dignified your arguments with that?