Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: Libloather
If it took a constitutional amendment to ban the consumption, possession, and manufacture of alcohol during the 1920's, because the federales lacked jursidiction and enumerated power to enact such a law, why does it not take a constitutional amendment in 2000's to ban the consumption, possession, and manufacture of marijuana, as well?

Nothing in the constitution relating to federal jurisdiction and enumerated powers has changed since then.

In addition, from the perspective of the presumption of liberty, the 9th amendment states:

The enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."

Simply put, every citizen has the retained right to consume the chemical of their choice for the reason of their choice without federal intervention, nothwithstanding.

And any such intervention is unconstitutional for lack of jurisdiction, lack of enumerated power, and a violation of the 9th amendment, in the Bill of Rights.

Let me repeat: The Bill of Rights. Not the bill of privileges.

8 posted on 01/21/2003 4:54:41 PM PST by tahiti
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 1 | View Replies ]


To: tahiti
Let me repeat: The Bill of Rights. Not the bill of privileges.

Well said, but always lost on "conservatives" who believe that being caged for years by government decree with sociopathic homosexual rapists is the appropriate fate for someone caught "possessing" a natural herb.

24 posted on 01/22/2003 1:34:15 PM PST by bassmaner (Let's take back the word "liberal" from the commies!!)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 8 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson