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To: Protagoras
"The question isn't whether it is moral to criminalize intrinsically evil acts, the question is whether it is prudent to criminalize particular evil acts.

That was the question.

I understand this point, anyway. Now, why would it be imprudent to criminalize sodomy?

58 posted on 03/19/2003 8:53:04 AM PST by Aquinasfan
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To: Aquinasfan
Now, why would it be imprudent to criminalize sodomy?

Many reasons, among them;
Consensual sex between adults does not violate the rights of other people.
It is unenforcable and such laws breed contempt for legitimate laws.
The term sodomy and the behavior it describes, are open to interpretation. (Like pornography)

Oral sex with your wife would be defined as sodomy and if you think that it should be criminalized you are on a different level than me.

God will deal with sinners at the judgement, he does not require your puny efforts to deal with it by violence or the threat thereof.

60 posted on 03/19/2003 9:01:11 AM PST by Protagoras
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To: Aquinasfan
Now, why would it be imprudent to criminalize sodomy?

Because well over 75% of your countrymen and women, and probably yourself, have engaged in sodomy.

425 posted on 03/19/2003 1:48:24 PM PST by sakic
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