how is forcing substance abusers to stand trial equally with those who are at sober at the time of the crime not consistent with those two?
Oops, I misunderstood your original post. I thought you were referring to the consensual "crime" of drug possession, not malicious activity committed under the influence. In the latter case, you are absolutely correct - my bad.
17 posted on 04/23/2003 12:16:44 PM PDT by bassmaner
(Let's take back the word "liberal" from the commies!!)