We can only know the laws of physics that apply to our own Universe. Since our cosmological theories say that time came into existence along with the rest of Universe, the expression "prior to t=0" has no meaning, as there is no "before" before time existed, just as there is no place "south" of the south pole.
So in that sense, you've asked what is technically an ill-formed question; for which there is no answer because the question assumes facts contrary to the theories you are expecting to provide the answer.
If you are interested in pursuing the matter further, you should consult a genuine physicist, like "physicist."
Really? But if inflation had occurred one unit of time earlier, then t=0 would have happened at t={-1}.
But thats neither here nor there. You tell me I've asked a technically ill-formed question while you expound on a technically ill-formed theory that violated the first law of thermodynamics and every other law during inflation.
You have no idea what dark matter is, it has never been observed and can't be found in our galaxy. Yet it constitutes anywhere from 70 to 90% of the Universe depending on which Cosmologists you listen to.
The singularity came out of nowhere containing nothing except it had to contain at a minimum quanta and vacuum. So apparently something is south of the south pole, no?