When everyone has "Rights" then nobody has "Rights." "Rights" exist only inter pares.
Rights exist only "between peers"?
While in actual practice the ruling aristocracy has more rights than me, is that the way it is supposed to be from Constitutional and moral standpoints?
Regards
J.R.
28 posted on 08/31/2003 4:37:34 PM PDT by NMC EXP
(Choose one: [a] party [b] principle.)