[Starwind]

There was to be no currency recall - however - careful reading of the bills indicated that exchange of old money for the new "domestic" money was to be on a dollar for dollar basis; exchange of the old or new "domestic" money for the new "external" money would be by *value*.

It was clear to me at the time that this represented a dual currency system where the "value" (or exchange rate) of the two currencies were *not* linked.

These seem contradictory statements. Could you please clarify? If domestic and foreign bills exchange at a "dollar for dollar basis" wouldn't their value in fact be linked and equivalent? Could you give an example of what you meant by exchange by "value"?

[agitator]

Read my post again. If you were to exchange existing dollars for the new "internal dollars," that exchange would be one for one; $1 old for $1 new "internal" money.

When you went to exchange old or new "internal" dollars for the new "external" dollar, that was to be done by value, i.e., implying that there could be different values (purchasing power) for the "internal" dollar vs. the "external" dollar.

In otherwords, you're going on vacation to Ecuador (which uses dollars as currency) and it might take $50 US "internal" dollars to buy $35 US "external" dollars to take with you.

Considering how politicians enjoy theft by the defacto devaluation of our currency by printing too much of it (where they get to spend the new money before you get it), and considering how certain elements of govt think it's the duty of American citizens to transfer the product of their work to every third world ____hole for no good reason, with a dual currency with a floating exchange rate between them they would be free to inflate our new "rubles" without affecting the value of the external dollars.

That would mean they could steal the value of our "rubles" without interfering with international settlements based on the dollar, or mucking around with the long term planning of multinationals using the external dollar.