Yes, but a marriage between two pagans, in which one of them decides to become Catholic, and the other does not, can be dissolved via the Pauline Privilege. And that is a routine approval given by the local bishop. (Canon 1143)
If a marriage is valid outside the Catholic Church then why the big problem with Catholics marrying in non-Catholic churches?
Because Catholics are bound by the form of marriage, which is the marriage must be contracted in front of two witnesses and an official representative of the Church (bishop, priest, or deacon, or a Protestant minister, if a dispensation has been granted by the bishop).
Catholics who marry outside this form have not contracted a valid marriage. The "annulment" sought here is a simple declaration by the Catholic party and it is signed by the local bishop.
Is it the same as the Petrine Privilege? I still do not understand either one.
Catholics who marry outside this form have not contracted a valid marriage.
Okay, so siunevada's friend is not in a valid marriage because the husband was Catholic. Why then is the marriage of two non-Catholics married outside the Church considered valid?
Should siunevada's friend get a legal divorce?