[Ex-Wretch]

Canon 915 states that if they are gravely manifest, obstinate, and persistent in their sins, then they must be denied. The Church condemns the sin of sodomy.

Here is something I would like an authoritative answer on. Coming out of the 60's free love era, I never would have considered oral sex to be "sodomy". I would like to know the official RC definition of "sodomy". Is oral and/or anal sex between a husband and wife approved? Or, is it only defined as "sodomy" if it is between unmarried heterosexuals or people of the same sex?

It is obvious that if oral and/or anal sex between a married couple is "sodomy" - well, then a lot of married people receiving communion should be denied.

[Polycarp IV]

then a lot of married people receiving communion should be denied.

All non-procreative sex is always sodomitic, whether it be contraceptive, oral, anal, or masturbation. This was the common teaching of ALL denominations, Catholic, Protestant, and Orthodox, until only recently. It is NOT just a "Catholic" concept.

However, the Church does not condemn forms of foreplay leading up to procreative marital union.

See the last couple posts on the differences regarding public/manifest/private sins and their application to denial of the Holy Eucharist.

[Polycarp IV]

well, then a lot of married people receiving communion should be denied.

By the way, unrepented contraception/sterilization itself is still a mortal sin, so those unrepentant Catholics who contracept or are sterilized should refrain from the Holy Eucharist. But most if not all contracepting/sterilized couples receive anyways.