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To: William Terrell; topcat54; suzyjaruki; nobdysfool
What, I wonder, is the term "shortly" and "time is at hand" means to God in terms of the material sequential passing one moment after another?

Well, i've always preferred, with the Reformers, to let the text speak for itself, follow the clear meaning of the words, and where the text is not necessarily clear in one place (to the reader), to let other passages speak to the meaning of the 'unclear' passage.

In this particular case, the word translated as shortly is ejn tavcei...you can find and download the Greek font that i am using here in the event that you don't have it...

It is defined in Moulton's Analytical Greek Lexicon as:
tavco", ew", tov,...seiftness, speed, quickness, celerity; ejn tavcei, with speed, quickly, speedily; soon, shortly, Lu 18.8; Ac 25.4; hastily, immediately, Ac. 12.7 et. al.

"the time is at hand" in Rev 1:3 is the phrase oJ ga;r kairo;" ejgguv".

kairov" usually means "time" or "season" in the NT. It is the word ejgguv" that is of concern.

With respect to time, Moulton defines the word as

near, as to place, Lu 19.11 et al; close at hand, Ro 10.8; near, in respect of ready interposition, Phi 4.5; near, as to time, Mat 24.32,33, et al;

The most basic reading of the text indicates that the event(s) God speaks of is soon to happen. It is indicated by the context as well...why would God have John write immediately and send to seven churches if the events were distant future?

27 posted on 07/19/2005 11:37:39 AM PDT by Calvinist_Dark_Lord (I have come here to kick @$$ and chew bubblegum...and I'm all outta bubblegum! ~Roddy Piper)
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To: Calvinist_Dark_Lord
Are we living in the Golden Age ruled by Jesus with Satan cast into the pit? A lot of you folks that are responding seem to believe that Jesus' predictions are only for the tribes of Israel.

59 posted on 07/19/2005 2:14:28 PM PDT by William Terrell (Individuals can exist without government but government can't exist without individuals.)
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