Not so. God's feast days fall outside of any covenant and here's why.
No so. See post #66.
Your verses that you have offered do not amount to any proof of your theory.
1. Passover, one of God's festivals, was established and inaugerated before the covenant was struck at Mt. Sinai. This occurs in Exodus chapter 12 and was not part of any covenant.
While Passover may have technically been given prior to the events of Mount Sinai, they are obviously linked, e.g.,
"And God spoke all these words, saying: 'I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. ... '" (Exodus 20:1,2)
The redemption of the people from Egypt, when the Passover was originally given, is highlighted during the Mount Sinai experience. We also have the fact that the "law" concerning Passover was given again after Sinai (Exodus 34) and in Leviticus 23.
2. Jesus Christ always kept the holy days even though he routinely eschewed non-biblical Jewish traditions. BTW, this should be reason enough for any follower of Christ to keep the Lord's holy days.
Jesus kept all the provisions of the holy days because He came to "fulfill all righteousness." He kept them perfectly and completely as they were given in the law of Moses. He did not keep the ersatz version that modern "messianic" are fond of keeping today. So to say that "we keep the holy days just like Jesus and Paul did" is a patently false and self-deceived statement. The ersatz "holy days" of the messianc are not the Lord's Holy Days, since they do not conform to His commandment's (Deut 12:32).
3. Paul expressly says in scripture that the feast of unleavened bread is to be kept:
Paul is speaking of spiritual things, not fleshly. There is no physical "unleavened bread" in Paul's comments. Rather, we are to observe these matters spiritually, i.e., "but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth." To take Paul's words with any other meaning is proof that you misunderstand the plain words he wrote and the very nature of the gospel.
4. God's Holy Days are prophesized to be kept in the future. For example, Zechariah prophesizes that after the day of the Lord:
Christ's coming was still future from Zechariah's point of view. Christ came and perfectly kept the law so we do not have to. Are things are fulfilled in Him, including Zech. 14, etc. When we worship Him in spirit and truth we also fulfill the law by virtue of His finished work. There will be no future holy day keeping. That's a fabrication of "literal" dispensational hermeneutics.
The word translated "seasons" is the same hebrew word used in reference to God's feast days. It's the "set time" when we are to come before the Lord.
This proves nothing. In fact it appears the argument is based on several logical fallacies, including hasty generalization and false analogy. Just because the same word is used in two different places does not mean that word has the same meaning in both.
Clearly Passover was instituted BEFORE God struck the old covenant with Israel. There's really no disputing this. You make the argument that it's "obviously linked" and then attempt to discount it. Well yes, they ARE obviously linked. Adam and Eve are also obviously linked. Noah is obviously linked. Abraham is obviously linked. Christians today are obviously linked. Everything that appears in all of scripture is obviously linked to everything else. That in and of itself isn't a valid reason for discounting the holy days. You must prove from scripture that the holy days were ever intended to be non-binding on future generations of Israel, both physical and spiritual Israelites.
Jesus kept all the provisions of the holy days because He came to "fulfill all righteousness." He kept them perfectly and completely as they were given in the law of Moses.
Where does it say that in scripture? Jesus kept the holy days because HE created the holy days and they are HIS holy days:
Lev 23:2 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, Concerning the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, even these are my feasts.
See, they are the "feasts of the Lord". Who is the Lord? Jesus Christ or course. Who created the "feasts of the Lord"?
Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
See that? Christ created the holy days that are called "his". That's why he kept them...because they are important and meaningful to God and ourselves.
Paul is speaking of spiritual things, not fleshly. There is no physical "unleavened bread" in Paul's comments. Rather, we are to observe these matters spiritually, i.e., "but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth." To take Paul's words with any other meaning is proof that you misunderstand the plain words he wrote and the very nature of the gospel.
You're exactly right and that is the purpose of observing the feast of unleavened bread. It's an annual reminder that we are to examine ourselves and eliminate sin from our lives. The physical act of deleavening and avoid leaven is to remind us of this spiritual lesson. Humans are a combination of matter and spirit. God knows that we can learn spiritual lessons through physical reminders.
Christ's coming was still future from Zechariah's point of view. Christ came and perfectly kept the law so we do not have to.
That's correct, but not in the way you think. Christ *always* keeps the law. Always. He must. Christ DOES live in Christians today. Christians who allow Christ to live IN and THROUGH them will appear to be keeping the law, but really it's Christ. Paul understood this:
Gal 2:20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.
Are things are fulfilled in Him, including Zech. 14, etc. When we worship Him in spirit and truth we also fulfill the law by virtue of His finished work. There will be no future holy day keeping. That's a fabrication of "literal" dispensational hermeneutics.
Sorry, that's what scripture says. Zechariah is clearly a prophetic book that deals with the end times. Now if you believe that the end days have come and gone, or don't believe what God says in prophecy, I guess that's your choice.
This proves nothing. In fact it appears the argument is based on several logical fallacies, including hasty generalization and false analogy. Just because the same word is used in two different places does not mean that word has the same meaning in both.
Perhaps, but this is the definition of the word translated "season" in Genesis 1:14:
moed
From H3259; properly an appointment, that is, a fixed time or season; specifically a festival; conventionally a year; by implication, an assembly (as convened for a definite purpose); technically the congregation; by extension, the place of meeting; also a signal (as appointed beforehand): - appointed (sign, time), (place of, solemn) assembly, congregation, (set, solemn) feast, (appointed, due) season, solemn (-ity), synagogue, (set) time (appointed).